Aristotle's Teleology of Command

It doesn't take long for Aristotle to run into one of the most basic problems of political organization, which is what it is that allows one person to control or even (in his time) own another. He concludes outright that brute force (e.g. owning as slaves those whom one has conquered in war) cannot possibly be its own justification since one may be stronger but not better than the conquered, and from this he further concludes that slavery as a political institution is not justifiable. He seems to have a more difficult time, however, ruling it out as a feature of private, household economics. Or if he does rule it out, he does so only indirectly or accidentally, by justifying slavery with what seems like an overly complicated and ultimately indefensible teleology. Even a crude rendering of his description of the place of a slave within the household economy draws out the obvious problem of placing people in the same category as livestock with no justification other than their utility:



For Aristotle, household management (the Greek term for which is the root of the word "economy") ranks higher than craftsmanship or production outside the household, since the latter exists to support the former, the former being essentially the "art of living". It's possible that since he defines property as anything that belongs to the private art of living, he is merely categorizing household employees as property by way of an awkward and trivial formality. But his elaboration on this problem is anything but trivial, as he is obviously very concerned about the question of how it is that some are subordinated to such a role and not others.

There is no denying, and Aristotle illustrates, the necessity of some kind of division of labor in which those with directive skills lead those with less directive (e.g. purely physical) skills, but even this division is problematic for him.

Proportionality is a recurring theme in Aristotelian philosophy as it is in Greek mathematics, and in this case what he sees is a problem of unknown proportions. Differences in physical ability are easier to see than differences in directive or intellectual ability, but even if we assume that some people are much better at direction than others, there is still a nagging problem. I may be as strong as an ox and the dumbest person alive, but my capacity for will and self-direction is still far superior to my merely animal capacities, and this is not the case in even the smartest ox. In other words, my innate capacity for self-direction, which ultimately is hard to detect, still potentially counts for a lot, even if it is less than that of another:




If this problem was so apparent to Aristotle, why has the question of human dignity (assuming that dignity is inseparable from autonomy) had to be remanufactured so many times since?

Furthermore, what happens to the question when it's recast in the language of ostensibly more "scientific" modern social science, which requires us to dismiss all teleologies as relative or misleading and all questions of value as irrelevant? They may well be irrelevant, but it is insufficient and unscientific to accept this second-hand. We must reexamine the original proposition and try to find out where and why it has failed, if in fact it has failed.

For the greater good

"...all the actions of all mankind are done with a view to what they think to be good."

Book 1 of Aristotle's The Politics introduces the polis or "city" as the highest association, one that like any association is formed for some good. Later, in Book 7, Aristotle says what distinguishes the city from the lower-order associations, such as the family or the tribe, is that it is "self-sufficient for the needs of life", and its members therefore become part of something like an organism, and only reach their highest potential as such.

Modern political theorists sometimes point to Thomas Hobbes (1588-1679) as the originator of a "corporeal" concept of the state, as a body that subsumes individuals as members, but something like this already is introduced by Aristotle:

"Thus also the city is prior in nature to the household and to each of us individually. For the whole must necessarily be prior to the part; since when the whole body is destroyed, foot or hand will not exist except in an equivocal sense, like the sense in which one speaks of a hand sculptured in stone as a hand; because a hand in those circumstances will be a hand spoiled, and all things are defined by their function and capacity, so that when they are no longer such as to perform their function they must not be said to be the same things, but to bear their names in an equivocal sense."

Obviously individuals, families, and tribes can survive outside of an urban or purely political framework, and Aristotle doesn't deny that. He is merely speaking of the polis as the highest form, not in terms of scale but in terms of purpose, which he links to self-sufficiency. The image is corporeal, but not dismissive of the individual. The incorporation of the city rather elevates the citizens.

If it is a body as Aristotle describes it, its relative health probably would be measured according to its degree of self-sufficiency and ability to sustain life, which probably includes its ability to control pathogens, cancers, or even hyper-active anti-pathogens. The city is a political animal or at least exhibits political behaviors that ultimately aim at the highest good, which is the preservation of the city in its healthiest state. Even though all actions and associations are thought to be "good" by their individual agents, they are only "good" if they contribute to or do not harm the health and self-sufficiency of that greatest good that Aristotle calls the polis.